I am a volunteer writer for the website GotQuestions. People who come to that website can browse a huge data base of already asked and answered questions or they can submit a question which is assigned to a writer to answer. I thought as I had opportunity to answer some of these questions, I would share them in a series of posts under the label "Asking Questions". Just as an FYI, I present the questions in the form they are asked without correction of spelling or grammar. I pray that you are encouraged.
Q-I need to know why that there was stonings in the old testament and why they also allowed hangings and hands to be cut off for stealings. Was this man`s law at the time or God`s? Because when Jesus came he stopped the men from stoning the women and said `Those without sin cast the frist stone`. Why was it allowed to stone before Jesus came? The main question is was this Man`s or God`s laws. Thanks, Samantha
A-Samantha,
All of the Old Testament law was given by God (II Timothy 3:16). Therefore, all of the law was God's law. Now, notice something important about the situation with Jesus and the woman who was about to be stoned. In John 8:4, we read "they said to Him, "Teacher, this woman has been caught in adultery, in the very act."". Now, if she was caught in the act, she was not alone. Therefore, where was the other guilty party.
They were trying to get Him to either say God's law wasn't valid or approve of them doing something that Roman law would not allow--execute capital punishment. So what He did was neither. Instead, He pointed to the sin that was in their own hearts. So, it's not so much that He stopped them but He made them realize their own hypocrisy. They weren't really interested in the law or righteousness. The fact that they only brought one of the guilty parties proved that.
Therefore, Jesus did not nulify God's law in that encountrer but made them recognize their own sinfulness.
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