So, taking
that bit of scholarly insight, let’s look at Acts 2:23, which says “this Jesus,
delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you
crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men. “ Now, we see 5 words here in English that I
think we need to look at specifically—“the definite plan and foreknowledge”. In Greek, the word “the” is a definite article
(“te”-3588) comes before the noun (“plan”-Greek boule [1012]) which is joined
by the conjunction “and” (“kai”-2532) with the noun “foreknowledge” (“prognosis”-4268). Therefore, according to Granville Sharp’s
rule, the two nouns (“plan” and “foreknowledge”) refer to the same thing and
what they refer to is God’s plan. In
other words, God’s plan and and His foreknowing in Romans 8:29 are the same thing. As noted by Greek scholar Kenneth Wurst in
his textbook “Bypaths in the Greek New Testament”
In Acts 2:23, the statement concerning Jesus going to the Cross "Him being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God", is another example of the first noun being articular and the second being anarthrous. "Counsel" is the Greek word "boule", meaning "decree", and "foreknowledge" is "prognosis", or "to know before". These two impersonal nouns are connected by the conjunction "kai", or "and". They are also in the same case, and "boule" has the article, and "prognosis" doesn't. This construction means that the "decree", or "determinate will" of God is not separate from the "foreknowledge" of God, but that the "foreknowledge" of God ARISES from His decree. The major significance of this passage is that it reminds us of the fact that nothing can be "foreknown", until it is first made certain by the "decree" of God! There is nothing to "foreknow" until the immutable decree of God makes it certain.
Everywhere we see the "foreknowledge" of God mentioned in the New Testament, we must remember that God does not make any decisions according to His "foreknowledge", but that His "foreknowledge" is the RESULT of His decree.
Now, does
this prove non-Calvinists are false teachers?
No. Does this prove they have the
gospel wrong? Of course not. My entire point was to demonstrate that,
despite the assertions of some people, the doctrine known as Calvinism does
have biblical support when one examines the grammatical evidence of scripture.
2 comments:
I like your usage of Kenneth Wuest's By Paths in the NT, Joe. You nailed the foreknowledge and predestination issue with something that it has been years since I thought about it. Thanks for the reminder.
Wow, that's high praise coming from you, Doc. Thank you for the encouragement.
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